The mother of all bad beats...
 

I know you guys think losing your little coinflips and 65/35s and even 80/20s are bad, but I don't think anyone should even be allowed to post in this section until someone comes up with something worse than this bad boy.

Hmmmm.... Guess I can close this section forever now, huh?

That's right - perfect, perfect. I had the nuts on the flop (99.9%) and on the turn (97.73%). I didn't even see it coming.

I still can't believe he called my turn raise with 2 pair on the board. He had to know he was chasing a 1 outer!

Damn.

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***** Hand History for Game 3489843601 *****
5/10 Texas Hold'em Game Table (Limit) - Fri Feb 03 21:17:50 EST 2006
Table Table 66388 (6 max) (Real Money) -- Seat 4 is the button
Total number of players : 6
Seat 1: Rogue623 ( $183)
Seat 2: dritch ( $433.50)
Seat 3: cresgrove ( $548.37)
Seat 4: Boozing ( $509)
Seat 5: Banana54 ( $428.50)
Seat 6: Jerrya1111 ( $294.32)
Banana54 posts small blind (2)
Jerrya1111 posts big blind (5)
** Dealing down cards **
Dealt to Rogue623 [ Ac, Jd ]
Rogue623 raises (10) to 10
dritch folds.
cresgrove folds.
Boozing folds.
Banana54 folds.
Jerrya1111 raises (10) to 15
Rogue623 calls (5)
** Dealing Flop ** : [ Ah, Ad, Jc ]
Jerrya1111 bets (5)
Rogue623 calls (5)
** Dealing Turn ** : [ Jh ]
Jerrya1111 bets (10)
Rogue623 raises (20) to 20
Jerrya1111 calls (10)
** Dealing River ** : [ Th ]
Jerrya1111 bets (10)
Rogue623 raises (20) to 20
Jerrya1111 raises (20) to 30
Rogue623 raises (20) to 40
Jerrya1111 calls (10)
** Summary **
Main Pot: $159 | Rake: $3
Board: [ Ah Ad Jc Jh Th ]
Rogue623 balance $103, lost $80 [ Ac Jd ] [ a full house, Aces full of jacks -- Ac,Ah,Ad,Jd,Jc,Jh ]
dritch balance $433.50, didn't bet (folded)
cresgrove balance $548.37, didn't bet (folded)
Boozing balance $509, didn't bet (folded)
Banana54 balance $426.50, lost $2 (folded)
Jerrya1111 balance $373.32, bet $80, collected $159, net +$79 [ Kh Qh ] [ Royal Flush -- Ah,Kh,Qh,Jh,Th ]

:eek: :eek: wow that is awful.

Wow
 

Wow my bad beats pale like crap in comparison to this one:eek: :eek:

Yeah ... wow ... that is the worst beat I have ever seen. I would have bet the house (an imaginary entity, considering I don't have said house), the car, the kids' education fund (another imaginary entity), my wife (A.I.E.) and the shirt off my back (there, something I do have!) with your hand.

I was wondering, though. In limit poker, I believe there are no betting caps in a heads-up situation on the river. In other words, you can just reraise each other until you're out of money, so long as it's done in the proper increments. I know this is true in live casino games. At least, that's what the Borgata dealers told me a while back. Are the rules different online? I just noticed the $10 call by Mr. Royal Flush after the river bet had been raised and reraised to $40.

Thanks.

By the way, midway through this post, my elbow knocked the main computer power switch off and I had to type the entire damn thing again. :mad: :mad: :mad:

And no Bad Beat jackpot either, brutal! :p

Party Poker has a 4 bet maximum. There are some sites out there, like , where there is no cap when it gets to heads up.

If it makes you feel better I had my nut flush beat a sraight flush yesterday
but I only lost $8.
It was party also:confused:

Boy TP, you suck at poker. I would have won that hand:D .


Congrats on the worst ever.

Ummmmm 1, 2, 3, 4, 5....6 cards? WTF?

Yeah, wow ... not only does he fail to lay down to an OBVIOUS royal flush, but he can't even count, either. What'd ya do, TP? Start partying for the Super Bowl four days in advance? This isn't Jake's, you know.:rolleyes:

Ide like to see that chat that followed this hand, that is if u didnt just leave the table and cry somewhere...

Send that to PartyPoker and demand your money back for their software fucking up.

See that's exactly the BAD POINT I was referring to in the LIMIT games. If you had bet more or even gone all in; in NL ; no way he would've called. But in Limit, the players take the chance.

Oh my....I just noticed something....

Dealt to Rogue623 [ Ac, Jd ]
Rogue623 raises (10) to 10
dritch folds.
cresgrove folds.
Boozing folds.
Banana54 folds.
Jerrya1111 raises (10) to 15
Rogue623 calls (5)
** Dealing Flop ** : [ Ah, Ad, Jc ]
Jerrya1111 bets (5)
Rogue623 calls (5)<<--NO RAISE? You were trying to fish him in for more money? ...yet ... you got burned, instead!
** Dealing Turn ** : [ Jh ]
Jerrya1111 bets (10)
Rogue623 raises (20) to 20
Jerrya1111 calls (10)
** Dealing River ** : [ Th ]

I'm thinking if you'd have raised him right there, he might have folded...then again in LIMIT ...one never knows. Small price to pay to see it through to the end. He was going for the possible straight...got lucky on the royal flush.

Rook:

Ask yourself this: Why in the world would I want my opponent to fold when I am literally a 99.9% favotire? OF COURSE I didn't raise!!! If you don't understand that, you should seriously stop playing right now and hit the poker books until you do.

The same is true on the turn. Sure, in NL maybe I could have bet more and gotten him to fold, but I didn't want him to fold! I was better than a 97% favorite.

As for his "going for the straight," I think it was more likely that he was going for the flush, but with 2 pair on the board, this is a very, very, very bad idea. He was drawing to 1 out on the turn (and needed two perfect cards on the flop).

Wow... that is messed up. I didn't even notice it, but I think I have seen that before.

I think it's a software glitch with Party. When you have two sets of trips (still only a full house, of course) and it can't figure out which exact card (which suit) to drop from your hand, it just lists them all. Kinda goofy, but I can see how it could happen.

Hmm...sorry. Maybe I just don't understand what the meaning of favorites really is. See what if ....the other guy had AJ too? Wouldn't that make him a fav too? Meaning your percentages wouldn't be 99.9 % anymore, or would it?

And grant it you were fav on flop, but on turn things changed. J on turn....what if the other guy had JJ? Quads...hmmm? Who would be the fav then? Or can that even be determined that way?

I know I must sound foolish but just asking questions so I can better understand it. Not trying to be dumb on purpose. :o

Well, with two Jacks on the board and one in my hand, I find it very unlikely he would be holding 2 Jacks. There are only supposed to be 4 in the deck, so if that's what he had, Party would be getting a very nasty email from me.

And yes, if he was holding exactly AJ as well, then we would be in a guaranteed chop situation. But he wasn't. He was holding KhQh, which I was a 99.9% (literally) favorite over.

Only if he was holding a hand like AK or AQ could he have a legitimate 3 outs on me (still a huge underdog), and because he lead at the AAJ flop, I think it's pretty unlikely he had either of those hands. If he was holding literally ANY other hand though, he was going to need TWO cards to beat me (like if he was holding QQ he would need to catch both remaining Queens to win), so I knew I was a massive favorite.

The point is, with my hand and the flop AND on the turn, I was holding the nuts. There were no two cards he could be holding better than mine, which means I WANT him to put money in the pot, NOT to fold.

Make sense?

lol OOP's on the J part! Forgot you were holding the other Jack.
*me...dum dum after all*:o

And yeah I get the reasoning for you not betting. Same thing as when JD got the quads and checked. Fool the other into thinking you don't have the nuts. This way you jack up the pot. Gotcha!

Ok thanks for explaining it to me...so in that case....

....yuck worse ever bad beat man!....

*hands TP the "Worse Bad Beat Trophy"! ;)

Yeah, I think you can go ahead and close this board now TP.

I just lost KK to QQ, does that count?
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Sorry bro, that sucks. But, what are you gonna do? You played it the only way to play it and the cards just didn't work out. Nothing really to do but shrug and keep playing.

Can't really complain that much cause anybody would take the 99.9% nuts in every hand they played if they had to deal with a beat like that once every 1000 times.

Look at it this way, the odds of that ever happening to you again are rrrreeeeaalllllyyyy small.

Absolutely not. Not even close. :)

Well, not everyone. Scroll up a bit.

Actually, tis wasn't the first time I've lost to perfect perfect... And I'm sure it won't be the last.

yea TP i would say that is one of the worst I can see...

Amusing sidenote
 

Had this hand happened on Party's bad beat tables … it STILL wouldn't have qualified.

One of the worst?

I should hope so, considering it's not mathematically not possible to be farther ahead than this and all.

I supose it would have been more dramatic if this was NL and all the money went in on the flop, but looking at it purely based on the cards, you can't be farther behind than needing 2 consecutive perfect cards in order to win a hand.

With the amount of hands you play, it had to happen sometime! If it was me, it wouldn't have happened though...

I bet I play about 10% as many hands as you think I do.

I feel like I hardly play at all these days... The whole reason for that 6 max challenge was to make me try to find more time for poker.

lol i typed that fast and didnt read it over

i say ONE of the wost because, this one was very very bad also.... you tell me mathematically which one is worse i'm not so sure

yours or...

KK vs. AK

flop 2K2

turn 2

river 2

KK flops kings full and AK two pairs top kicker...

the river makes it quad 2's with a king kicker ( the board ) or quad 2's with an ace kicker.

regardless yours is hands down an absolute horrible bad beat

He would have won with AA also, so it's only half as bad.

well yes he would have won with AA also, but he didnt have AA, he had AK. Its not only that, its the fact that the flop came 2k2.

regardless, that beat of yours was absolutely horrible... bad beats such as that only come once every ten thousand hands or so... just be glad it came in a cash game, and not the final table of the 2006 WSOP Main Event..:)

No.

If the turn and river came A and A, he would have won. That's what I was saying. Aces full beats Kings full.

yea i get what youre saying now...although yes that one was a horrible bad beat running aces would have done the trick.

I had a pretty bad O8 beat..
 

I had the NUT flush draw, NUT low draw, and NUT straight with 1 card left to go. I pushed my entire stack in, all $100+ at a .50/1 PLO8 table. So basically any low card and I win half. Any flush card (except one I will get to that) and I win with the Nut flush, or if things stay the same I win. EXCCCCCCCEPT: A 9 of spades came making no low, and the nut-hi for the idiot who called me with a sf! lol. I have no idea what the odds of that is.

Well, even if that was the ONLY card in the entire deck that would save him, with 4 cards on the board and 4 in each of your hands, that leave 40 unknown cards. 1 that helps him and 39 that don't.

So, 39:1. That's about 2.5%. Or, expressed a different way, 25 TIMES more than that chances of the hand I posted.

You guys are really missing the point here.

Where is your sense of drama? Starting hands should be KK vs A3.

Maybe this is wrong, but the only thing worst would be KK vs AA, flop coming KK2 and then turn and river of AA, and then it would be a tie with TP's sob story. The point is can a person be farther behind on the flop to come back to win? Pretty much any situation in which you are chasing a two outer on the flop and then a one outer on the turn.

Right.... you can't be farther behind that needing two exact cards to come in order to win the hand.

You have 8h 9h
Opp has Kh Ah

Flop comes 7h 10h Jh

What if something sick like that happens?

How do the odds compare in this situation to a perfect-perfect situation?

Don't take this wrong, but I honestly don't see how this is so hard for people to understand. In this example, the guy would need to get exactly the Qh to win the hand. So, with 45 unknown cards left after the flop, his odds are 44:1 against and they will be 43:1 on the river. His total odds are 22.5:1. This is called a one outer, which is a whole lot easier to hit than perfect perfect.

Now, had your example been this:
You have 8h 9h
Opp has Kh Ah
Flop comes 6h 7h 10h

Here, your opponent needs to get exactly the Jh AND exactly the Qh in order to win the hand - the order they come doesn't matter. So, that's perfect perfect, meaning the odds would be exactly the same as the hand I posted.

It doesn't matter if the person needs the two remaining Aces or the exact two suited cards or the two remaining 4s for that matter (33 vs 44 after a 332 flop). Exact two cards = exact two cards, no matter what two cards they are. The probability of getting exactly a Qh is the same as getting exactly a 4d, for example.

The only real difference here is that at least this guy has a reason to be in the hand, with an Ace high flush and all. He should at least THINK he has a good hand.

No, I understand that perfect-perfect is much harder...I was just wondering what the comparison was...

I'm not trying to argue the impossiblity of the situation.