You're not making any sense. You say you would have put someone on a full house, so you would have folded what you thought were overcards and a flush draw. Then you realize he actually had the flush already, so then you say you would have called against what you thought was a full house??? Ummm.... a full house still beats a flush, dude. If you (incorrectly) put your opponent on a full house, why on earth would you call with just a flush?
You're making my head spin here.
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