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Old 06-01-06, 10:02 PM
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Actually, that's not true. If there is an Ace on the flop, that means there are only three other Aces available to be distributed around the table. That makes it LESS likely that one of your opponents is holding one - purely mathematically speaking. It doesn't matter which event (hole cards or flop) happened first. There can still be a maximum of 4 Aces in play, and there are still only 52 cards in the deck.

Take an extreme example (I find it's always easier to think logically when you consider extreme examples): Say the flop is AAA. That means there are 49 unknown cards and only one of them is the case Ace. So the odds of that being in play at a 10 handed table are 1/49*10=20.4%. Had the flop contained ZERO Aces, for comparison sake, the odds of a single Ace being in play would be: 4/49*10=82%. Huge difference!

I suppose a much better and non-mathematical example would be this: IF the flop is AAA, what are the odds that someone is holding AA? Very obviously, they are 0%. With 0 Aces on the flop (or 1 or 2), those odds are obviously > 0%.
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