no he is absolutely correct, and yes i know it looks horrible being that the guy had such little in chips... but i did flop a set. It would be understood if Iput it all in pre flop with 44. what are the chances of set over set, i know it is a very rare possibility. In the end i am playing for the win, would you have folded the 44 pre flop there? Now that I look back on it yes I very well could have. To be honest i should not have seen a flop until this guy blinded out/lost and made the money that way. But in the end i was playing for the win, and it doesnt bother me going all in with a set and losing to another set... as well as last week in the casino all in with the straight flush 45678 of diamonds to 678910 of diamonds. shit happens man..
but in that position i will not see another flop with somene so low... thanks for the input guys
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