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Old 05-23-09, 03:50 PM
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Default Tourny question

It's the bubble of a tournament and it is folded around to the button who shoves . The SB has EXACTLY the same amount of chips as the button and calls. The BB who has them both covered calls as well

The BB wins the hand. Who finishes in the money and who doesn't? Does the strength of the players cards come into play in determining this? If so post or preflop? What if the cards are the same? Suits?
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Old 05-23-09, 06:10 PM
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In this case both players finish ITM getting 1/2 of last place money.
Cards do not matter. If players are eliminated on the same hand the player with more chips would have made it into the money I think.

If hand for hand is in progress then chips don't matter at all I think.
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Old 05-23-09, 07:47 PM
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This is definitely correct -- i wasnt sure what happened if chip counts were identical though
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Old 05-26-09, 02:19 PM
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Not positive, but I think they split the final place's prize money.
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  #5  
Old 05-29-09, 11:51 AM
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Last live tourney i played this happened.

What they did, after some discussion, was pay out both players for the last paying spot (it was a £50 buyin so i think they got £80 each), and take a very small amount from the top 10 to even it out.
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Old 05-29-09, 07:55 PM
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Splitting the last spot's money seems to make sense, but I suspect it differs from room to room.
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Old 05-29-09, 11:42 PM
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I don't think splitting the last place money is as simple as it sounds - there might be 20+ people getting last place money. I could see the 2 players having to split a single, last place, share 50/50.
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