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#1
07-14-07, 12:30 AM
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Please explain. I understood that the implied odds are in the additional money that can be won if you hit your set. How do you factor in 3 bet frequency?
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poopity, poopity pants. |
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#2
07-14-07, 12:41 AM
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If he is 3betting alot he is doing so with much more than high pocket pairs. The implied odds come from getting his whole stack in the middle which wont happen often if his 3betting range is wide, as he wont be connecting with many flops with which he will comfortably get his whole stack in postflop.
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I play a game, it's called insincerity. |
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#3
07-14-07, 02:05 AM
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And "getting his whole stack in" is VERY difficult to do in limit.
Implied odds in NL >>> Implied odds in limit. They are a lot easier to calculate in limit though. |
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#4
07-14-07, 08:55 AM
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Does that mean implied odds realy (at least in part) with wanting him to have an over pair to the board?
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poopity, poopity pants. |
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#5
07-14-07, 11:39 AM
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Think about it... Do you think you are more likely to get action from a guy who has AA on a J84 board, or from a guy who has KJ, or 98, or something like that?
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#6
07-14-07, 12:10 PM
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I realize that. It's just that my current NL strategy for small pocket pairs really didn't factor in the looseness of the villain. Just something else to factor in.
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poopity, poopity pants. |
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